I think I got the whole thing about it, but I'd like to have a proof of a dubt I have.
As wiki says, "The bit depth has no impact on the frequency response, which is constrained by the sample rate."
So, let's take a signal processed at 32bit, which contain a X set of partials.
Does it means that if I lower the bit depth I'll always got the same X set of partials + noise? Or I could get that X set of partials without some partial on it + noise?
In few words: could I lost partials in the signal just lowering bit depth?
Audio bit depth observation
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- Site Admin
- Sun Nov 23, 2014 8:59 pm
Re: Audio bit depth observation
Nowhk wrote:Does it mean ... always got the sam...
Re: Audio bit depth observation
At 16 bit or above, the effect is almost always...
Re: Audio bit depth observation
Scott wrote:Yes this ^^^ + noise = without dith...
Re: Audio bit depth observation
To be more clear, look at this picture:
quanti...
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- Site Admin
- Mon Nov 24, 2014 10:24 am
Re: Audio bit depth observation
Nowhk wrote:Thinking to a more complex signal: ...
Re: Audio bit depth observation
So the set of partials are not related in betwe...
Re: Audio bit depth observation
@Scott: instead, with compression, I can lose p...